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Well, there's always a tritone between 3rd and 7th
Originally Posted by Phil in London
. As well as between root and #4/11. Not sure what different the presence (or not) of a 5th makes - except I think the chord sounds better with the 5th in it (below the #4/11)
True.
Originally Posted by Phil in London
Yes, I was saying the same thing. The point is that C7#11 is a very different chord from C7alt! The "7#11" symbol is always - in my experience anyway - used to specify lydian dominant, and not a 7alt chord. The distinction is very useful.
Originally Posted by Phil in London
They can be, yes, but it's quite rare to see a 7#11 used as a V. Much more common to see it as a bII (highlighting the tritone sub relationship with V7alt), or as a bVII. (When I first encountered the concept of 7#11 chords - alongside the issue of avoid notes - I saw them as potential V chords. But then I never - or hardly ever - saw them used as V chords in practice.)
Originally Posted by Phil in London
IOW - as with all music theory
- this is not about rules that have to be followed, but common practices. No one is saying you can't use 7#11s as V7s. It's just that, as a rule, it tends not to be done,.
Why that might be is an interesting question, but a different issue.
There's certainly a lot of potential flexibility, yes. But mainly that's between various types of alterations to V7s: altered scale, HW dim or wholetone. Lydian dominant is not a common alternative (on a V).
Originally Posted by Phil in London
The voice-leading, of course, is what it all comes down to. There's chromaticism and half-step voice-leading involved in all the choices, and identifying a particular chord (and its roman numeral) might just come down to what bass note we use. That's the only essential difference between C7#11 and F#7alt, after all. Both lead (conventionally) to Bm or B, in the same way. C7#11 just gives us a half-step bass move.
The mix of chord tones and chromatics we choose, to enhance the cadence, is what gives rise to the chord identity, rather than vice versa. And the fewer notes in the chord, the more options for other scale notes and therefore chord/scale choices.
Less so for me, but only because of the b9 (or rather augmented double octave, as notated!) between the Gb in the bass and the G above.
Originally Posted by Phil in London
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04-29-2014 09:18 AM
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I dont know if this has been answered, but the "+" sign as very specific in what tone gets altered. Thats an augmented sign, so no, both chords are not the same.
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Huh?
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So Augmented 5th and #5 are not the same?
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Good lord, the advice dispenced gere sometimes...
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They are the same. I read a post that said it should be read as an altered chord. An altered chord could mean flat or sharp. The C+7#9 is a sharp 5th, not a flat 5.
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Ohhhhjjhjjhhhh shhhttttttttt. I noticed the #5 in the second chord. Brain fart. Sorry, go back to what everyone was doing
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Its cool. I typed "gere." Ive needed several saissons to keep up with this blackhawks game...
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Lol! It's all good.
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Thanks for putting yourself out there to help. Nobody is perfect, right?
Originally Posted by eh6794
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Right!
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G is augmented version of H, anyway.
Originally Posted by mr. beaumont
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Blackhawks are toast booyeah
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do you view the 9#11 chord as a dominant IV chord in melodic minor?
Originally Posted by Phil in London
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IV chords are "subdominant", by definition
Originally Posted by fumblefingers
.
Technically you're quite right that 9#11 is diatonic to melodic minor as a IV. I've personally never seen one used in that way. (That's mainly because minor key chords are not generally harmonised from melodic minor, other than the tonic.)
However, 7#11s can occur as IV chords in major keys. They make a bluesy alternative to the usual maj7#11. I personally like to use one on the IV in Moon River.
Phil in London is also quite right that in theory a 7#11 chord could be used as a V chord (dominant function). I can see no reason why not, and plenty of reason why it ought to work. The question, perhaps, is it ever done in practice? And if so, in what contexts?
I'm pretty sure I have seen lyd dom chords used as V7s; but quite rarely. The question then is: why so rarely (if theory suggests it's OK)?
So it becomes an issue of how seriously one takes "common practice". Do we want to be bound by common practice (in order to sound conventionally "correct", follow the accepted traditions of the masters, recognisable "jazz" idioms), or do we want to experiment? Move beyond?
As a choice, that might seem like a no-brainer, but it's a useful perspective, IMO.Last edited by JonR; 06-03-2014 at 08:08 AM.



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