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I agree with all of that. My point... was that the example you cited (of the 11 note scale run under a slur mark) was (more likely) a phrase mark and not actually a slur in the first place. Just made an observation.
Originally Posted by fumblefingers
You responded with that. I explained clearly why a composer might use a phrase mark in that situation. That's all. I mentioned the phrase mark as an aside in my original post. I just thought that in a "legato-vs-slur" discussion, the very common confusion over "slur-vs-phrase mark" might be relevant. Especially since the example you highlighted might very well be a prime example of that confusion and, therefore, not the best example to cite in this particular discussion.
Originally Posted by fumblefingers
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05-17-2014 07:39 PM
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maybe it is a phrase mark, maybe not.
bottom line - the composer and conductors seem to have have made it clear to the best guitarists and their accompanying orchestras that it is to be played legato. and they do.
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Bream plays technical slur at the first two notes and after that he does not play legato - it is for sure
Slurs as signs mean plenty of things - motion, aspiration.. this is a long tradition, do not take it that litteral, there are no strict didfinitions, no book where we can check, just experience, tradition, musical hearing... my personal scores are full of hand-written slurs (signs) even in the descendong scale lines - I can scan a page and mail to you to show how it works for me... it is the way of thinking, it is not strict recomendation that can be somehow strictly completed and guaratee a result...
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Originally Posted by Jonah
for the guitarist you mean? (certainly not for the string players, given that they bow in a single direction).
regardless, i can see that you're dug in on this.
of course, such discussions of articulated legato, slurred staccato, semi-staccato, mezzo-staccato, and non-legato, etc. are not the language of jazzers in general, and jazz guitarists in particular. (or any folk or pop style for that matter. one would have to presume a classical background on the part of the practitioners. ahem.)
i guess you could always continue this discussion in the other styles or classical guitar thread.
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Originally Posted by fumblefingers
yup... we're arguing about a fairly small point here I suppose.
He plays legato without slurring. Agreed.
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Here's another question: Is it possible to slur a string of notes of different lengths?
It is definetly possible to play them legato, whichever way you understand the term, but having different lengths would
impose some kind off rhythm, completely natural and involuntary rhythmic accent, no matter how uniform in volume and
attack you'd play all the notes. Would that still be sluring?
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yesfor the guitarist you mean?
yes you are right, bur the question came here and actually it was pretty quickly ansewred exactly like it is concerned pop/rock and jazz players mostly...of course, such discussions of articulated legato, slurred staccato, semi-staccato, mezzo-staccato, and non-legato, etc. are not the language of jazzers in general, and jazz guitarists in particular. (or any folk or pop style for that matter. one would have to presume a classical background on the part of the practitioners. ahem.)
but somebody decided that some details are needed... and it was not me.
What would you do in this case?i guess you could always continue this discussion in the other styles or classical guitar thread.
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to me it depends on sustain and sensitiviety and response of the instrument... why not?Here's another question: Is it possible to slur a string of notes of different lengths?
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nothing
Originally Posted by Jonah



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