Amplifier Power and Speaker Efficiency

[Tom Karol]

I'm not an EE (and I don't play one on TV), but I've been thinkin' (again):

If I have an amp - for argument's sake, let's say it's solid state because we're not going to be driving it into compression/clipping - with 100 watts RMS and a 12" speaker.

And then I have another amp that's identical except it has 50 watts RMS.

The 100 watt amp should be 3 db louder than the 50 watt amp, right?

But let's say the 50 watt amp is driving a speaker with the same frequency curve, but it's 3 db more efficient than the one in the 100 watt amp.

Then the two amps should be able to produce the same perceived loudness (maximum SPL) from an identical input signal at a specified level of maximum distortion.

Is this right?

Just curious!

[teletron1]

I'd say you just answered your own question. But.... what difference does it make?

[TieDyedDevil]

Totally correct, in theory.

In practice, finding two speakers that have identical frequency response yet differing in sensitivity by 3 dB or more... will never happen.

[teletron1]

Thats interesting to know, but my tone has to be what I'm looking for. I'm not worried about "theory".

[Dad3353]

Good evening, Tom...
The 50 amp you describe will be perceived to be louder than the 100 amp (having a 3db advantage with its speaker...) at first. Once the 50 can go no more (50 w max...), the 100 can continue until its max (100...), at which point it will be perceived as equal to the 50.
Under 50 w, the superior efficiency of the 50 amp will give more volume than the 100 (given the same input etc...).
Really just curious, or is there a hidden question behind this?
Hope this helps...

[Tom Karol]

No hidden question. I've got 2 amps. Each one has over 100 watts RMS and a 12" speaker; both can go louder than I need to go while maintaining the tone I want. I'm certainly not trying to be controversial - I was just curious. TDD's comment was interesting. Merci!