A foggy day analisys

[Claudi]

Hi, everyone!
Here's my first song under analsys. That's what I think of it, and if there are mistakes feel free to give your opinions. I hope I'm attaching it correctly on my first try.

The key is Fmaj:
I Fmaj7, II Gm7, III Am7, IV Bbmaj7, V C7, VI Dm7, VII Em7b5.

Secondary dominant chords:
D7 resolving to Gm7.
G7 becoming a II Gm7 and passing to the primary dominant V C7 to resolve to I Fmaj7.
F7 resolving to Bb6 (IV).
Eb7 (bVII of nat minor). Don't know why it's resolving directly to the root.

Then I see modal interchanges since V C7 becomes Cm7 (nat minor), IV Bbmaj7 becomes Bbm6 (armonic minor?), and III Am7 becomes bIII Abm7. Why?

And that second chord of this standard, III Am7, played with a b5?

Thank you!

[ksjazzguitar]

Hi. You might have gotten more responses if you'd put this in the "Theory" folder.

Originally Posted by Claudi

Then I see modal interchanges since V C7 becomes Cm7 (nat minor), IV Bbmaj7 becomes Bbm6 (armonic minor?),

Many of is would see the "Cm7-F7" as a seondary ii-V. Just like in classical it so common to have a secondary dominant, in jazz we can think of secondary ii-V. Those just lead to the IV chord, Bb. We know that it is a IV (and not a new key center) chord because it soon changes to iv, a very common modal interchange.

Originally Posted by Claudi

and III Am7 becomes bIII Abm7. Why?

Because it sounds good. Now, what is the retroactive theory explanation? One of my keyboard harmony teachers called this a "half-step preparation" but that is too pat for me. I think of it as a tritone sub with a color change. The secondary dom there would be D7, the tritone sub would be Ab7, and he's just changed the "color" of the chord to Abm7. Either chords work there, it is just a change in color. Another way to look at it is that pretty much any chord can be approached from a half-step up.

Originally Posted by Claudi

And that second chord of this standard, III Am7, played with a b5?

This is another secondary ii-V, but because it is targeting a minor chord (Gm7) the ii-V becomes iim7b5-V7.

Originally Posted by Claudi

Eb7 (bVII of nat minor). Don't know why it's resolving directly to the root.

This is a common chord progression called a "back door turnaround." The tonic is led to by iv7-bVII7 or (as in this case) just bVII7. Check out bars 3 and 4 in "Ladybird" for a classic example. We can also just think of it as continuing around the circle of 5ths from Bb.

But good job.

Regards,
Kevin

[Claudi]

Hi, Kevin!

Originally Posted by ksjazzguitar

Many of is would see the "Cm7-F7" as a seondary ii-V. Just like in classical it so common to have a secondary dominant, in jazz we can think of secondary ii-V. Those just lead to the IV chord, Bb. We know that it is a IV (and not a new key center) chord because it soon changes to iv, a very common modal interchange.

Why make it so complex? I think that the kind modal interchange I explained is more simple since it just affects 1 chord, Cm. I see the logic of your response, anyway.

Originally Posted by ksjazzguitar

Because it sounds good. Now, what is the retroactive theory explanation? One of my keyboard harmony teachers called this a "half-step preparation" but that is too pat for me. I think of it as a tritone sub with a color change. The secondary dom there would be D7, the tritone sub would be Ab7, and he's just changed the "color" of the chord to Abm7. Either chords work there, it is just a change in color. Another way to look at it is that pretty much any chord can be approached from a half-step up.

I didn't know that a secondary dominant could have its "secondary tritone sub" if I may call it this way.
I jot it and the last underlined down.

Originally Posted by ksjazzguitar

This is another secondary ii-V, but because it is targeting a minor chord (Gm7) the ii-V becomes iim7b5-V7.

Oh, yep. A minor ii V in the middle of a standard in a major tonality. Didn't think of it though I see it possible.

Originally Posted by ksjazzguitar

This is a common chord progression called a "back door turnaround." The tonic is led to by iv7-bVII7 or (as in this case) just bVII7. Check out bars 3 and 4 in "Ladybird" for a classic example. We can also just think of it as continuing around the circle of 5ths from Bb.

I knew about the turnaround but not about the "backdoor" turnaround. I see it.
Ladybird? I'll have to analyze it as well. Y'know, I'm starting dealing with the standards. I'm starting to enjoy playing and analyzing them, so if I repeat any of the mistakes I had with A foggy Day on another standard be comprehensive with me.

Thanks a bunch, Kevin!

[Aristotle]

Originally Posted by Claudi

Eb7 (bVII of nat minor). Don't know why it's resolving directly to the root.

In simplest terms, it's IV-IVm-I cadence. It creates mine line from D to Db to C. It's related to a larger line, what I would call one of the basic progressions. The line goes F to E to Eb to D to Db to C, as the chords go F, Fmaj7, F7, Bb, Bbm, F. For example, the song Can't Take My Eyes Off of You.

In jazz, it is common to change a non-critical note in a chord (hence the Bbm and Eb chords are substitutes by changing one note). The first time through, the Bb-Bbmin-F cadence has an F is in the melody. It makes little difference to the "standard" nature of the song is you use Bbm or Bbm7, Bbm6 or Eb9 (as these are just one note changes).
The next time through, around mm 27, there is an A in the melody (as the phrase is a 3rd higher). So from the prior chord selections, you would probably have to avoid the Ab, which changes changes the chord options to something in a Bbmin-maj7 or some kind of Eb#11.
But either the first way, the second D-Db-C harmony line is still stated or implied. That's what's driving the harmony, not whether the root happens to be Bb or Eb.

Just get used to this cadence and its variations. You just might see them again.

[ksjazzguitar]

Originally Posted by Claudi

[KS said] "Many of is would see the "Cm7-F7" as a seondary ii-V."
Why make it so complex? I think that the kind modal interchange I explained is more simple since it just affects 1 chord, Cm....

Because that is what is happening. There is sometimes a fine line between modulation and tonicisation and another between tonicization and modal interchange.

And it's really not that complicated. We use secondary dominants all the time, what "complex" with sticking a secondary subdominant in front of that? They do it in classical too. Perhaps you feel an urge to use modal interchange to solve any non-diatonic chord as modal interchange, but it is more important to see how it is functioning.

Function is the most important thing, not what new shiny tool we have in the toolbox. The Cm7-F7 is clearly functioning as a ii-V to Bb and therefore should be thought of as that. You can also think of it as a very short modulation, pivoting back on the Bb, but that's not really jazz thinking and will only get you so far. As you keep analyzing, you will encounter ii-Vs where it will be increasingly awkward to fit a "modal interchange" explanation.

Peace,
Kevin

[Claudi]

Ok, guys. Thanks for your explanations.
Aristotle, cadences is a subject I'm also in now. I understand them but still have to discern them. Another thing to have in account.

Kevin, so, in the same standard there can be different II V's in different temporary tonalities. Yeah, I don't see it that complicated now seeing it as subdominant-dominant.

So after learning correctly this standard I'll post another one, in a few days or next week I guess.

Thanks dudes.